I'm in the process of selling my home and the purchaser has raised the issue of a leasehold on the deeds (from 1913, old victorian house north city centre).
I originally bought the property 6 years ago and one of the conditions of my mortgage was that the freehold be bought out. It now transpires that my solicitor for the purchase never carried this out and I'm both astonished and furious that I was never told.
I'm using a seperate solicitor for the sale now anyway but would be vey grateful for any independent advice for how to proceed and as to whether or not any liability is attached to the original solicitor for any losses I may now suffer?
I originally bought the property 6 years ago and one of the conditions of my mortgage was that the freehold be bought out. It now transpires that my solicitor for the purchase never carried this out and I'm both astonished and furious that I was never told.
I'm using a seperate solicitor for the sale now anyway but would be vey grateful for any independent advice for how to proceed and as to whether or not any liability is attached to the original solicitor for any losses I may now suffer?