My father purchased my current property for me six yeras ago by bank draft. I am married three years and my name alone is on title deeds. We are looking to move. Am I right in thinking that we can avail of first time buyer status as I did not purchase my current property and my husband has not bought previously either?
When you say your father purchased the house it seems you mean he paid for it. If your name is on the title deeds then you own the house and who paid for it is not relevant. You are not therefore a first time buyer.
Myself and my boyfriend are talking about buying a place next year. He owns somewhere but I don't. Would it be possible for me to get the mortgage in my name but using equity released from the value of his place? Also, could he act as guarantor without being on the deeds? It seems unfair that even though I am a FB I will be penalised for buying with him so won't get the benefit of no stamp duty (when the gov bring in this new law).
There are many other threads on this issue-one name on deeds, two on mortgage where a couple (not married) are buying together. In short, it is possible, but may not always be advisable.