I'd really appreciate if someone could give us some advice here. My friend has a share in the family home (inherited), there is no mortgage on it. Does this mean that he is no longer a first time buyer? He does not own any other property and is looking into buying a house on his own at present.
I'd really appreciate if someone could give us some advice here. My friend has a share in the family home (inherited), there is no mortgage on it. Does this mean that he is no longer a first time buyer? He does not own any other property and is looking into buying a house on his own at present.
If you google Revenue First Time Buyer relief, you will find:
"Can I avail of first time buyer relief if I have previously inherited a house?
Yes. An inheritance is not regarded as a previous purchase and the first time buyer relief can be claimed provided all other conditions of the relief are satisfied. "