R redbhoy Registered User Messages 394 25 Oct 2005 #1 On the Oasis website it states that: "A divorced or separated person is considered a first-time buyer in the following circumstances: if they have left their former marital home and, do not retain any interest in the martial home and, their former spouse continues to occupy the home. " I dont suppose this applies to non-married previously co-habiting couples?
On the Oasis website it states that: "A divorced or separated person is considered a first-time buyer in the following circumstances: if they have left their former marital home and, do not retain any interest in the martial home and, their former spouse continues to occupy the home. " I dont suppose this applies to non-married previously co-habiting couples?