My question is in assessing damages does the Financial Services Ombudsman look at whether the loss has in fact been realised where an investment term has not yet ended? AIB may not realise the investment which was due to end in 2012 until say 2016 (they have a right to do this under the terms of the agreement), my actual losses may therefore not be calculated until then. As I am extremley concerned over the possible collapse of the euro and incurring even larger losses then, I am prepared to crystallise the currency loss at this time, if this is what is required to prove to the FSO that I have incurred losses. I would really appreciate if someone who has experiences of the FSO office to advise if the FSO might take the view that when the investment term expires only then can the true loss be determined. On the other hand is it possible that the FSO might take the view that if I can afford to repay the loan (via family support) that I reduce his sympathy for my position?. I really dont know how the office works and I know many of you have had experience of decisions so any advice would be appreciated.