BillyPiper
Registered User
- Messages
- 66
Hi there
I have a friend (honestly it is a friend) who has received a final warning letter from their job due to 2 car accidents in the past 6 months. Both crashes were just damage to the company car. No damage to a person, or to another persons car etc.
Anyway, in the final warning letter it clearly states "due to the previous 2 accidents in the past 6 months we are issuing a final warning" etc
Anyway, they used the terminology "accident" in the letter. Would this really stand up in court as a valid reason for dismissal if both incidents we're truly accidents, and also worded in final warning letter as "accidents".
Thanks
Billy
I have a friend (honestly it is a friend) who has received a final warning letter from their job due to 2 car accidents in the past 6 months. Both crashes were just damage to the company car. No damage to a person, or to another persons car etc.
Anyway, in the final warning letter it clearly states "due to the previous 2 accidents in the past 6 months we are issuing a final warning" etc
Anyway, they used the terminology "accident" in the letter. Would this really stand up in court as a valid reason for dismissal if both incidents we're truly accidents, and also worded in final warning letter as "accidents".
Thanks
Billy