Just to clarify/correct my previous post. If the house/mortgage is in the name of the 3 parties and there is no positive equity, then to a large extent the bankruptcy of 1 of the parties is irrelevent to the mortgage. All 3 parties are jointly/severally liable for the mortgage and if the remaining 2 parties can meet the mortgage payments then the Bank will be satisfied. The house/mortgage can be excluded from the bankruptcy if there is no equity in the property.