Helen said:Hi,
In the situation where one member of a relationship owns a house, then subsequently asks their partner to move. Then a few years later the relationship breaks up, is it possible for the non house owning partner to claim a share in the property?
The reason I am asking is that I didn't think it would be possible, but have heard through a friend of a friend of a friend that it has happened to some people they know.
Thanks.
Helen said:In this example, the couple wouldn't be married. Obviously if they were it would be very different.
My understanding was the same as Kildrought's but the story I heard was exactly that of Delgirl. I couldn't understand why a settlement would be reached when the non house owner didn't have a claim on the house in the first place.
This wasn't an urban myth rp, I knew both people in my example for 4 years. She definitely got a settlement afaik in excess of E20,000.The "Common law" partner winning a claim over a property seems to be an urban myth
by the time it dragged through the courts and lawyers get paid it may be just cheaper to come to a settlement.
delgirl said:This wasn't an urban myth rp, I knew both people in my example for 4 years. She definitely got a settlement afaik in excess of E20,000.
yes but didnt you say that they settled, im taking this as meaning they settled out of court, so the case was not actually won in court.
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