[broken link removed] the "first time buyer" preferential rates of owner occupier mortgage interest relief only apply to the first seven years of an individual's first mortgage. If this is the case then does this not mean that first time buyers who remortgage or switch to another lender (without purchasing another property!) will lose such preferential relief and only qualify for the lower rate and, as such, is something that should be factored into the calculations when working out whether or not it is beneficial to do so?