Hi, if a directors current account has become overdrawn at year-end can it be cleared by the director issuing the company a fee for consultancy?
Assume this is taxable income to director?
Are there any other tax-efficient ways to resolve the problem? Salary and mileage at civil service rates are 2 I know of
Thanks
I have seen a company with 3 directors, one took salary while the other 2 charged in consultancy fees. This was inspected by the Revenue and there was no problem with it. I think Revenue wanted to desk audit it as it was linked with termination payment (and the sums involved were quite large).
It is important to note that the 2 directors that charged in consultancy fees were engaged in property and were VAT registered in their own names i.e. they were returning this under their own trades.
None. It was extraction of the profits 33.33% each and Revenue had no problem with it, from the company point of view anyway (albeit we don't act for the 2 directors who charged in consultancy fees, but I'm sure we would have heard about it if there was problems with it).
They were more concerned about the cessation date (for allowability to CT deduction of the termination payment), which they were satisfied on.
Hi Mandlebrot,
thanks for the reply. Firstly there is no request being made by me for tax exasion advise. Nor do i think i was being suggestive really. The phrase i used was efficient, this of course should be extended to be compliant with corporate enforcement.
Anyway - if the invoice must be at for an activity distinct from trade of company then this would not be a runner, he is only qualified for the activity of the company. I was thinking along the lines of a management fee, the proceeds would be taxabale in the directors personal income tax of course.
You say you have never seen it accepted in practise - does this mean that you have seen it rejected?
I may be being simplistic but from Revenue point of view I assumed that if they werent at a loss, which they are not, then there would not be a problem.
I am aware that it can be left lie assuming it doesnt contravene corporate enforcement rules and that will be considered, thanks for the information regarding the loan/BIK, very helpful.
You say that you would be amazed if an auditor didn't have a serious problem with the experince that Paddy199 describes - could you say why?
Just to clarify, the company I spoke about is a property company. It bought a piece of land back in the 90's and sold it in 2009. The company trade was to buy and sell property at a profit but it sat on it alot longer than was initially envisaged. The directors who charged in consultancy fees had their own property trades.
With that said, Revenue requested the invoices, examined them and were satisfied with the arrangement. I dealt with the company affairs but I did not work on any of of the 3 directors returns.
Thanks Paddy,
All I can say is, I'm amazed!(Particularly after having informally spoken to a couple of Inspectors to confirm I'm not imagining what Revenue's stance on this is.)
So I'd still advise the OP or anyone else considering invoicing for services provided by a director to a company, that they are on extremely shaky ground.
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