TheBigShort
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So you are now agreeing that it is the marginal tax rate above a certain level and not the level of an individual's disposable income that acts as the disincentive to earning income above that particular level?
If you are then we are in violent agreement (although I wouldn't necessarily agree that an effective marginal tax rate of 40% is excessive).
No where does it imply if you're in the top 50% that you're overtaxed.
Yep. The top 50% of earners is based on income. There could be people in that group paying relatively little tax.So just to confirm. If you are in the top 50% of income earners, contributing some 96% of the tax while the bottom 50% of earners only contribute 4%, then as a top 50% earner you are not being overtaxed? Is that what you are saying?
If you use an example of 100 people and rank them by earnings and assume the total tax take is €1000. Taking tax from the first 20 would give you €750. Taking the next 30 people would give €210. From the remaining 50 people, you would only collect an additional €40
Hi Shortie
I don't understand what I said wrong?
The Top 20% pay 75% of income and USC taxes
The next 30% pay 21% of taxes
The bottom 50% pay 4% of taxes.
My main point is that the bottom 50% don't pay their fair share.
The Top 20% pay too high a share.
The next 30% is less clear. I suspect married couples and parents probably pay too little, but single people without children pay too much. But neither is as clear cut as the first two.
"So at once, a taxpayer can be both undertaxed (bottom 80%) and overtaxed (top 50%) which makes no sense."
I see what you are saying but I don't see how it's what I am implying.
Brendan
Hi Shortie
I don't understand what I said wrong?
The Top 20% pay 75% of income and USC taxes
The next 30% pay 21% of taxes
The bottom 50% pay 4% of taxes.
My main point is that the bottom 50% don't pay their fair share.
The Top 20% pay too high a share.
The next 30% is less clear. I suspect married couples and parents probably pay too little, but single people without children pay too much. But neither is as clear cut as the first two.
"So at once, a taxpayer can be both undertaxed (bottom 80%) and overtaxed (top 50%) which makes no sense."
I see what you are saying but I don't see how it's what I am implying.
Brendan
I was suggesting more that to start paying 40% at an income threshold of €33,500 is excessive.
I have no problem with agreeing that high earners are being squeezed. My issue is that the proposal in the Indo is to alleviate the tax burden from high earners and to transfer it to low income earners is wrong.
Yep. The top 50% of earners is based on income. There could be people in that group paying relatively little tax.
It just shows how the tax take is spread out.
The difference between person at 50% (just inside the top 50%) and the person at 51% (just 1% inside the bottom earners), would be very little.
All the stats do is show the distribution.
Dealing with USC I do think there is scope for change but not at the behest of transferring it from one income group (high earners) to another income group (low earners).
And thats exactly my point. The difference between two earners could be relatively tiny. But when presented as the top 50% pay 96% v bottom 50% paying only 4%, it creates a distortion that the bottom are getting a free ride, while the top "pay for everything".
Where's the distortion?
As losttheplot says all the stats show is the distribution of which cohorts pay what share of taxes.
It's time for the top earners to shout stop.
Here is a suggestion, if lower earnings provide for a free ride, take a pay cut!
And it is these type of statistics (a % of a %) that are open to manipulation and misinterpretation, giving the distortion that a particular income group pays too high a portion of tax whereas the other income group is on a 'free ride'.
OK, I see the point you are making now.
The bottom 50% of cases earn 18% of the income and pay 3.7% of the tax.
I note you didn't seem to take any issue with Seán Healy's statistic that the bottom 10% of earners pay 30% of their income in indirect taxes.
Brendan
Or the top 1% of earners share ~10% of all income and pay ~19% of all income taxes.
Very good, now we are getting it.
Sorry, I've no idea what point you are trying to make.
The example you gave above is bizarre - a taxpayer earning €10k doesn't pay the same amount of tax as a taxpayer earning €50k.
The rest of your tax contribution on the remaining €130,000 is not comparable with someone on €20,000 as they dont have that income to be taxed in the first instance..
So your point is that somebody on €150k pays the same rate of tax on their first ~€20k of income as somebody on ~€20k total. Is that it?
What exactly that proves is beyond me but do tell...
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