P
Petre
Guest
I became resident (but not domiciled) in Ireland for tax purposes in 2005 where I rented accommodation. I rented out my house in the UK and then sold it when the tenants moved out (after only five months in the house). The house had been my principle private residence since October 1996 and was sold (at a profit) in April 2006. I understand that because I am non-domiciled and did not sell my house within one year of moving to Ireland I will be subject to capital gains tax on the profit. This raises several questions and I hope there's someone helpful out there with some answers:
1) Will I have to pay tax on all the capital gain (less expenses that can be used to offset the gain) which seems somewhat unfair, or will CGT apply only to the gain that can be attributed to the short period of time when the house was rented out and was thus not my PPR?
2. I have reason to believe (and can probably show) that during the period my house was rented out there was no capital gain which is one of the reasons I sold the property after the tenants moved out. Might this mitigate my capital gain liability?
3. The house in question was clearly my PPR for the vast majority of the time I owned it (i.e. all but five months of 115). Is it possible that just a few months rental could change its PPR status uttery? In other words is there some test under which any reasonable person would deem my property to be my PPR and treated as such for CGT purposes.
1) Will I have to pay tax on all the capital gain (less expenses that can be used to offset the gain) which seems somewhat unfair, or will CGT apply only to the gain that can be attributed to the short period of time when the house was rented out and was thus not my PPR?
2. I have reason to believe (and can probably show) that during the period my house was rented out there was no capital gain which is one of the reasons I sold the property after the tenants moved out. Might this mitigate my capital gain liability?
3. The house in question was clearly my PPR for the vast majority of the time I owned it (i.e. all but five months of 115). Is it possible that just a few months rental could change its PPR status uttery? In other words is there some test under which any reasonable person would deem my property to be my PPR and treated as such for CGT purposes.