I currently own a property which I lived in for a number of years, just over a year ago I moved out and am now renting another property. Existing house is being used by family members from which I derive no rent. I assume that if I sell my house that there will be no CGT or Stamp Duty liability?
Assume that my house is the house used by family members
Afaik - the house you are currently renting is your PPR. You can only have one PPR. You are exempt from CGT on selling our PPR.
You could return to the family home (if possible) and make this your PPR and therefore be exempt from CGT
The amount due to CGT if sold now (if any) would be relatively small.
When I tried to edit this post I lost all info on it so therefore tried to recreate it.
This post then crossed with clubmans
If there is no rent derived from the property then I would assume that there are no stamp duty clawback or CGT implications. You might want to double check with Revenue and/or a tax expert just to be sure though.
Post crossed with asdfg's and doesn't tally - I think asdfg has more tax expertise than me so maybe you should disregard my post - well other than the second sentence?
the last 12 months of ownership of a house that was at any time your PPR is DEEMED to be a period when you occupy it as your PPR (even if you are in fact letting it out and occupying another house as your real PPR).
so if you sell within a year of moving out you won't have any cgt liability. any longer than that and you will have cgt to pay