OK, I need some advice on the following situation:
Approx 5 years ago, my wife and I wanted to move from rented accomodation and buy a house of our own. We found a suitable house and it looked like we were going to get the mortgage, but last minute problems stopped this and in order not to lose the house, I took out a mortgage jointly with my father, and the house was bought in that way.
Now, five years on, my wife and I are in a much better financial state, and have recently considered moving, but for many reasons we have decided to stay where we are, and to renovate and extend the existing house instead. This is going to involve a remortgage, already approved in myself and my wifes name. So, what I want to do now is transfer ownership and mortgage from myself and my father to myself and my wife.
Is my father going to be caught for C.G.Tax, bearing in mind the following:
It's our family home, he has never contributed to mortgage payments, or any others.
He wont actually gain financially, even though he will be disposing of a valuable asset, i.e there's no money changing hands between us and him.
(He is in agreement with the change in ownership, it was always the plan to do this at some stage.)
So, what position are the revenue likely to take on this?
Approx 5 years ago, my wife and I wanted to move from rented accomodation and buy a house of our own. We found a suitable house and it looked like we were going to get the mortgage, but last minute problems stopped this and in order not to lose the house, I took out a mortgage jointly with my father, and the house was bought in that way.
Now, five years on, my wife and I are in a much better financial state, and have recently considered moving, but for many reasons we have decided to stay where we are, and to renovate and extend the existing house instead. This is going to involve a remortgage, already approved in myself and my wifes name. So, what I want to do now is transfer ownership and mortgage from myself and my father to myself and my wife.
Is my father going to be caught for C.G.Tax, bearing in mind the following:
It's our family home, he has never contributed to mortgage payments, or any others.
He wont actually gain financially, even though he will be disposing of a valuable asset, i.e there's no money changing hands between us and him.
(He is in agreement with the change in ownership, it was always the plan to do this at some stage.)
So, what position are the revenue likely to take on this?