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This bit doesn't make sense to me. If you bought in 2002, rent it out now (?) and then sell in 2010 then it would be owned for 8 years, PPR for 6 years and rented for 2 years in which case (2-1)/8 = 1/8th = 12.5% of any total gain would be assessable for CGT.Purchased House Sept 2002/ Indexed this : (240*1.049 = 251.76)
Sell 2010: 400K
Sales Cost: 8K
Capital Gain:149 approx
Capital Gain Adjusted for own occupency: 149/10*3 = 44.7
Apart from that your rough calculations look about right but get professional advice if in doubt about anything.Is there anything i am missing here? Apologies i sent the earlier message in error without showing all figures. I know that you can deduct some enhancement type costs any idea what they would be?
Thanks in Advance for any advice.
The indexation was correct in the original poster's post as far as I can see. But I don't think that you are out of you depth since I basically agree with you above. Or maybe we are both equally out of our depths!Glad you're here Clubman - I'm out of my depth here, as I quickly realised having edited my previous post about 8 times. OP, your occupancy rate looks slightly off as the period of property ownership is 8 years if you sell in 2010 so the CGT proportion should be a multiple of an eighth, not a tenth, but otherwise your calcs look good to me.
There seem to be joint owners here so two annual CGT allowances should be available.Personal allow 1,270
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