I'm thinking of transfering ownership of some shares from my name to my partner's name, to take advantage of 2 sets of CGT allowance. Does anyone know if, for CGT purposes, the transferee's share purchase price will be set at what I originally paid...or what the shares are worth upon transfer...
I am surprised that there is no guide to this important issue so I will write one. I am neither married nor an expert on tax, so corrections welcome. In the interests of making the hypothetical examples easy to follow, I refer to people as Husband and Wife. The examples are true of any spouses...
No CGT on transfers between spouses. If and she disposes of the transferrred shares, your wife will be treated as having acquired the shares on the date, and at the value, at which you originally acquired them.