Can your house be attached by Creditors?

L

Linkytinky

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Not sure if anybody knows whether your house can be attached or you can be forced to sell your house to pay a creditor.

Many thanks
 
Re: Can your house be attached by Creditors

Yes. A house is an asset and it has a value. If a debtor does not pay debts, a creditor can sue, get judgment and file a judgment mortgage against the property. They can subsequently seek a well charging order and an order for sale. If the property is jointly owned, those proceedinsg sever the tenancy. Only the debtors value in the property can be sought.

It is often said that "family homes" would never be ordered to be sold to pay off debts. I do not believe that to be the case.

mf
 
Re: Can your house be attached by Creditors

Thanks so much MF1. Can i just explain my situation, as I am unsure what can possibly happen. I have quite a few creditors as I had a well paid job and was made redundant in Dec 2008, I have tried to pay everybody and managed to do so until March of this year. Earning 204 per week, does not go far as you know. I made an offer to this one particular creditor of weekly payments and received a letter to state that it is not acceptable but i must continue to pay what i can. They have now handed me over to collection company and I am not sure what to expect, as I cannot pay anything more than what i have offered, hence my question can they attach my affordable home that i just got in August of 2008 and Dec was made redundant. I have managed to arrange with all my other creditors for reduced payments which was agreed, except this particular one. Any advice will be greatly appreciated.
 
Re: Can your house be attached by Creditors

Hi, I lived in the UK and your house was secure regardless of how much you owed, unless the loans were secured on the house, or you were declared bankrupt. So I am surprised at the law here in Ireland that can force you to sell up to pay off a loan. Usually a county court judgment (UK) could order you to pay a certain amount monthly if the debt was under a certain amount.You would not be made homeless.
 
Re: Can your house be attached by Creditors

I am unsure of the law and that is why I am asking the question, the loan in question is only 8000K, I never owned a house when i made the personal loan....have been with this company for over 5 years, never skipped one payment ever until now, and they are not lenient at all, and i am just wondering if i keep all my correspondence and eventually do go to court if i will have a leg to stand on, as i did offer to pay off weekly but they said they dont accept it but i have to continue paying. Any advice will be so greatly appreciated.....do i continue paying the amount that i offered or now just leave it until i get a notice to go to court.....
 
Re: Can your house be attached by Creditors

Thanks so much for the advice, that is exactly what i intend doing to pay what i can weekly, and i am certain that the courts will see i certainly made an effort.

Thanks again
 
Re: Can your house be attached by Creditors


Is this theory or practice, mf? Have you come across many cases where family homes have had judgements registered against them, or been sold off from unsecured debts?
 
Re: Can your house be attached by Creditors

I have had a case in the past couple of years where our company had a judgement mortgage for an amount of about €17K.

We forgot about it and suddenly this individual surfaced after years out of the blue and said he wanted to pay off what he owed would we take €10K. He never mentioned he was selling the house.

Anyway, said no and got the whole amount back a couple of months later through the sale. Turned out there were a couple of judgements against this particular individual.
 
Re: Can your house be attached by Creditors

RainyDay said:
Is this theory or practice, mf? Have you come across many cases where family homes have had judgements registered against them, or been sold off from unsecured debts?
Click to expand...

Theory and practice.

I have clients who will place and have placed judgment mortgages on family homes but would rather not force the sale. Equally, as MandaC said, I have had debtors come back a few years after the judgment mortgages have been registered on the house and try and do a deal. What is it about some debtors "expecting" a deal when they have left the creditor high and dry?

A judgment lasts for 12 years only. After 12 years, the judgment is no longer effective and neither is the judgment mortgage.

mf
 
Sorry for dragging up this thread but I was asked by a close friend about this and don't know the answer myself any help would be apriciated,

Man and Woman live together in a house jointly owned /mortgaged
with 2 young kids not married.

Man has substantial debts in his name only and facing a 300k judgment mortgage on the family home

Family home mortgaged with a different bank than the bank obtaining judgment of 300k

Family home in negative equity of circa 200k
mortgage 500k - value 300k
interest only being paid with agreement from bank under MARP

Will or can the judgment mortgage holder force the sale of the home without the woman's permission and is it likely ?
 
I can't see what the point of forcing sale of home would do if there wouldn't even be enough to pay off the mortgage, there would be nothing left for the bank who placed the judgement.

Your friend should give a call to the MABS helpline or check with local Citizens Information office who may be able to advise him if he has not approached a solicitor already with the query.
 
Thanks for that ,
Yes I told her to make appointment with MABS to discuss the situation with them, I think she is fearfull her other half is going to go AWOL and is worried she may be ejected from the Home in time over his judgment . She can continue to service the interest on the Home by herself if he does wander .
 
In regard to the severance of a jointly owned property by registration of a Judgment Mortgage does the Land Reform Act 2009 affect this situation ?
 
Having read through this :



[broken link removed]

And the last few lines :



"Since this provision deals with co-owned land, it is clear that Irwin v Deasy has no bearing on judgment mortgages registered after 1 December 2009. In short, under the 2009 Act a creditor who has obtained a judgment mortgage against co-owned land may apply to the court for the sale of it regardless of whether the land is registered or un-registered."


Would I be right in saying that a judgment holder has the right to petition a court for a sale order without the other half owner of the property's consent ?

I presume they would only do this if they see equity in the property ?
Would they do it out of spite ? or is it purely a financial decision ?
So it appears the woman in this situation is open to losing her home on the banks whim if her common law husband deserts the home ?

Thanks .
 
Hi G Duffy. As a layperson i am confused about this general issue. I understand that s.30 (3) says that the joint tenancy is not severed by the registration of a Judgment Mortgage. I refer to the Land and Conveyance Act 2009. What practical consequences this have, if any, for any action a holder can take against the property which is jointly owned.
 
Below is a previous post by bond-007 in relation to a creditor obtaining a well charging order for the sale of a house where the house is in negative equity.



Old post
17-12-2009, 09:30 AM
bond-007
Frequent Poster posts: 3,269

Default Re: what can a debt collection agency actually do if someone refuses to pay up?


"Exactly. There would be questions asked such as what is the value of the property and what prior liens exist i.e. a mortgage. It would be against public policy to grant an order where the result would be to make the debtor homeless and not discharge the debt in question. A court could view such proceedings as vexatious in that situation. As there are considerable costs to the creditor in bringing the proceedings they would be foolish to do so where there were no chance of getting the order. "




bond-007 seems to know his stuff in this area...
So maybe my friend is safe from her home being sold by a creditor who has a judgment against her common law husband / husband as a well charging order would not be granted to the creditor in question as there is no hope of sadisfying the debt after the first mortgage is paid from the proceeds of any sale and could so be deemed a vexatious application if made :
Would this be a safe assumption in the current climate ?
 
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