Hi maybe someone could advise best solution for outcome.
Situation
Couple mix sixties interest only mortgage of 400,000 expires in 3 years. Security is on family home/asset rich cash poor. Statement of Means/assets exceeds 400,000 due to Pepper. This debt was originally with Bank of Scotland. Bearing in mind Bank of Scotland would/may have sold this debt for 25-30% to Pepper. Am I correct in saying Pepper might accept 50% of debt? It will be impossible for us to pay 400,000.
Situation
Couple mix sixties interest only mortgage of 400,000 expires in 3 years. Security is on family home/asset rich cash poor. Statement of Means/assets exceeds 400,000 due to Pepper. This debt was originally with Bank of Scotland. Bearing in mind Bank of Scotland would/may have sold this debt for 25-30% to Pepper. Am I correct in saying Pepper might accept 50% of debt? It will be impossible for us to pay 400,000.