A strange one but somebody in work asked me this question today and I have no idea so I said I would ask here. Hypothetically, if a road passes through their land and the folio map shows the land includes the road, as in it distinguishes the road up to their land but then does not, can they put a toll on it? The road is a private road that leads no where other than to a new estate with 6 or 7 houses. The estate is on their land that was sold years ago but nothing was done about right of way/access on the road apparently. They don't plan on doing it, I'm guessing, but were just curious what the legal standing was. Thanks