Can a P60 be issues if I am awaiting payments

Y

yop

Registered User
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Guys,
If I am still owed Dec 2008 and part of Nov 2008 salary can I still get a p60??

I have asked the boss there for one as I need to claim tax back and he is gonna give it to me.
The only concern I have is that if I have not been paid the money for them months does it mean that my tax has not been paid for them months and can it come back to bite me!

thanks
 
If your employer hasn't paid your taxes over how can the Revenue refund you what it hasn't received ?
 
Hi,
Yes, if and when they pay your back wages it will be part of a 2009 P60 / return. We should all get a P60 each year when employed.
 
gillarosa said:
Hi,
Yes, if and when they pay your back wages it will be part of a 2009 P60 / return. We should all get a P60 each year when employed.
Click to expand...

I dont know if I agree with you here on this point. The back wages will be included in the balance sheet of the company at the year end as deferred wages therefore when the emplyer submits the P35 for all employees, it includes the full amount. If the employer never pays the wages, then a supplimentary should be filed for 2008.


Can anyone clarify?
 
JJ1982 said:
I dont know if I agree with you here on this point. The back wages will be included in the balance sheet of the company at the year end as deferred wages therefore when the emplyer submits the P35 for all employees, it includes the full amount. If the employer never pays the wages, then a supplimentary should be filed for 2008.


Can anyone clarify?
Click to expand...

thanks for the feedback.

To give more info to see if it helps.


We have been issued payslips for Nov, Dec and Jan. I have received roughly 3/4 payment of Nov, in 3 separate payments, all lodged as CASH into my bank account.

So I am still awaiting payment for the rest of Nov and Dec and Jan.

We have been told that will may receive the rest of Nov within the next 2 weeks but that they hope to pay us Dec and Jan mid March.

I am not savy at all with how all this works. I am wording if he has us "down" as been paid on the accounts and also paid out tax to revenue but have not paid us our after tax take home.

Does that make sense?
 
If you received payslips, then the income has been included in 2008.

It is just that he hasn't actually paid you the full net salary.
Whether or not he has paid over the tax to the Revenue is not your problem. They will chase him for the unpaid tax and PRSI.

Wait to get the P60, but in the meantine, at least you have your payslips to show the Revenue if there is any issue - guard these with your life, in case he never issues you with your P60.

Your employer must be in trouble if he can't pay you your net salary on time.
 
Domo said:
If you received payslips, then the income has been included in 2008.

It is just that he hasn't actually paid you the full net salary.
Whether or not he has paid over the tax to the Revenue is not your problem. They will chase him for the unpaid tax and PRSI.

Wait to get the P60, but in the meantine, at least you have your payslips to show the Revenue if there is any issue - guard these with your life, in case he never issues you with your P60.

Your employer must be in trouble if he can't pay you your net salary on time.
Click to expand...

Long story re not been paid, hope it will be sorted now in next few weeks.
 
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