Thanks for your reply.Its exactly as you have posted.
Is it?Its exactly as you have posted.
Strictly only if it is their PPR.A tenant can avail of the rent-a-room scheme, they do not need to be the owner of the property.
No, the question of how to define principal private residence and more particularly how to interpret it with reference to a given situation is a legal one, likely to rest as much on relevant case law as on legislation.This is a tax question not a legal question.
This is the internet.advisor being sued for negligence.
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