What this poster should have done is completed the sale of his/her own property before agreeing to buy another. Doing what he/she did left them with little "wriggle" room.
mf
What does the contract say? Charging the notional interest, if its allowed for, and collecting it are different processes, the latter involving initiating court proceedings AFAIK.... can the vendor start to charge interest to the purchaser...
What happens if there is an agreed closing date and that date passes and the purchaser makes no contact, can the vendor start to charge interest to the purchaser... surely that is a difficult process and involves the courts?
FYI. This is not the way the property market works and that is why people sign legally binding contracts.
MCHNW was not forced into signing the new house purchase and in the very unstable property market we have they should have waited until their own houses was a) sold and b) monies received before purchasing another property.
If MCHNW made a mistake, it is a mistake that many people would have made. I know that I would be happy to commit to a purchase after I had exchanged contracts for the sale of my house. Up to now, I would have thought it far too conservative to wait until the actual cash was in the bank.
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