No. The vendor either is the sole owner or isn't. The issue about needing spouse consent/signature is a different matter. The vendors solicitor would usually prepare the contracts just from the title. However when it came to preparing the closing documents/signing the contracts the question was raised and the issue emerged.
To be honest I think this is terrible. how could the solicitor not have known until this stage. somebody didn't dot their i's and cross their t's in my opinion. also if the wife didn't have to sign contracts would she be required to sign closing documents at this stage?
we got the mortgage of the bank based on this property.
its worth remembering that this is your problem - not the solicitor's
mf
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