They can repossess the car from the current "owner" and sue you for the monies outstanding when you bought it. You sue the guy you bought it from, the guy you sold it to sues you, etc.
They can repossess the car from the current "owner" and sue you for the monies outstanding when you bought it. You sue the guy you bought it from, the guy you sold it to sues you, etc.
Would it not just be easier for the finance company to sue the original owner, ie. The only person who actually signed an agreement to pay the finance? Either way, I think the only person, other than the guy who took out the finance, they could really persue is the current owner, logically speaking.