Not my case this time but that of a family member who was in significant mortgage arrears due to job loss but found a job and continued paying down their debt. The bank seemed happy with their progress and recapitalized their arrears. As a family we sat down and discussed the pitfalls of recapitalizing and thought they should sell the property and make an agreement with the bank to pay off the residual debt. The mortgage monthly payment was impossibly high and surely was unsustainable long term. They didn't listen to us and went along with their bank. Two years later and as predicted they are struggling and have now went into arrears (1 month). Their bank have written to them offering options. One of these options was to lengthen the term of their mortgage. When they applied for this option they were turned down. Reason given (they did not prioritize their mortgage over unsecured debt). The only debt they have other than their mortgage is Revenue debt which is paid back on the dot monthly.
The two questions I have are as follows:
1. How likely are their bank to file for repossession (only 1 month in arrears but this mortgage was already rescheduled two years earlier).
2. Is Revenue debt classified as unsecured debt?
The two questions I have are as follows:
1. How likely are their bank to file for repossession (only 1 month in arrears but this mortgage was already rescheduled two years earlier).
2. Is Revenue debt classified as unsecured debt?