I've posted on another thread about this too, and maybe I'm fundamentally misunderstanding how this works, so be kind to me.
My company has a PRSA scheme. The employee puts in 5% salary, the company puts in 10% (which is an additional payment not taken from my salary). I then put in 5% more as an AVC (but to the same scheme), so that the total is 20%.
We have been told that that is all that can be put in tax-free.
Several threads, including this one, seem to be suggesting that the company contribution is independent of the employees potential 20% (up to age 40).
I understand Defined benefits are different to defined contributions/PRSAs, but even with the DC in another thread this argument is being made.
?? Am I wrong? Is my company wrong?
Some time later... OK... I spoke to a guy who knows more than me. I am wrong. My confusion arises from the fact that a PRSA is not really a defined contribution. This isn't clearly reflected in the sticky threads.
Ix.