fstruthers
Registered User
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that don't involve moving abroad..??
MAke it your PPR. If the satmp liability on your PPR is less than the CGT liability then it is possible to pay the stamp on the PPR declare the other as PPR and sell.
Probably the Stamp is higher though than the CGT Liability but worth checking.
works if you only have 2 properties.
How about if you have a brand new investment that was never rented.
You pay your stamp liability on your PPR which was bought years ago and has a low STamp and move into the new property.
Sell the new property immediately as a PPR without ever renting it and then move back to the original.
Obviously no actual moving may occur if possible.
Thaks LW but I think I need to explain better:
How about the actual scenario:
Prop 1 is 1yr old and it is my PPR
Prop 2 is not ready yet and I wish to sell it on completion. This is a back up plan if flipping fails for any reason.
If I want to consider prop 2 as my PPR I would have to pay stamp claw back on P1 which I bought as FTB and declare P2 as my new PPR
When I pay the clawback prior to closing P2 I am enttilted to move into P2 as an OO. Once in
Thus selling P2 with no CGT or Initiall stamp.
The sense in this is:
1.At some point prior to 5 years P1 will be rented any way.
2.The stamp on P1 is much lower than P2 so rather pay this.
3.Selling P2 as an OO allows this be done CGT free.
Therfore I am not liable to CGT on this if sold while it is my sole property.
Not necessarily. You must live in it for it to be your PPR. If your renting elsewhere then that is your PPR. It's not a question of only owning one property.