"If you separate the property is quite obviously in your sole name, you inherited it. "
Just to clarify. Where a married couple buy a house ( Family Home) together and hold it in joint names, in the event of a split there is an assumption that each holds 50%. One or other may seek a greater share in a separation for all kinds of reasons but its impossible to argue that its held jointly. Both parties start from a 50% ownership basis and negotiate from there.
Where one spouse inherits a property that is a family home, in the event of a split that 50% assumption does not hold. The non owning spouse has not contributed to its acquisition. Yes, it is a Family Home but its not owned by the non owning spouse. And yes, the property cannot be sold without their consent but a Court can and will dispense with that consent, if necessary. Each separation/divorce case is different but in such a scenario a Court would take cognisance of all assets available and depending on the circumstances could make any number of decisions on how the assets should be split but the non owning spouse is starting from a 0% basis.
mf