The simplest is the way you are doing it.
ok you didn't write how many years you'd been there, less than 3 I presume nowCohabitation is 3 years. Figure of 62.5k is based on the calculation, but we have agreed on 68k as a good will/having to rent for a few months. I wanted to post the figures here to see if they made sense, which broadly they seem to do so. I'm not that fussy over a few grand either way, as alluded to by @Baby boomer above. I just wanted to make sure I wasn't 70k out!
Brendan, in scenarios like this, where there is a substantial difference in deposits, no agreement exists, unmarried, and the property is held as joint tenancy, is the co-owner with the lesser of the deposit contributions within their rights to 'demand' a 50% share of the money left over from sale of the property?My first question is always - what does the written agreement you made with your girlfriend say when you bought the house?
What? You didn't do a written agreement?
Did you discuss ownership?
Did she own half the house?
If so, she should have paid a higher share of the mortgage.
If you reached no agreement, then there is a number of ways of looking at it.
The simplest is the way you are doing it.
View attachment 4614
You put in €40k more, so you get €40k more back out.
This is what it looked like,
View attachment 4612
So she should have been paying 58% of the mortgage.
If she was paying only half the mortgage
View attachment 4613
She would get back less under this arrangement.
But as I presume that you did not agree this, or anything else, then this is of theoretical interest only.
Brendan
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