D
Hi
Just wondering what the precendent for compensation has been in other countries?
Am I correct in saying Lenihan has said Anglo is solvent but that liquidity problems caused by reputational damage have necessitated nationalaisation?
If this is correct does solvency not imply the presence of equity (however small) and thus some (if v small) compensation for the shareholders?
The argument for zero compensation is that the only reason Anglo is solvent is because the government took it over.
A recent decision by the British Government has said that members of Equitable life are entitled to state compensation due to the ineffectiveness of the regulators office when the insurance companies funds went into meltdown a few years ago.
Whats the chance of this happening here? None!. Banks get bailed out when they are completely mismanaged but individuals have to suffer!
To Cancan
I'm not referring to people who took shares in the last few months in Anglo. I'm referring to long-standing shareholders and particularly those reaching or at retirement.
If it turns out that there is 4billion over and above liabilities in anglo on the day the government took over,I believe this amount should be handed over to shareholders,at 5 euro per share(4b div by 700m shares roughly)
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