I'd appreciate if anyone can clear this up for me. A bank has a JM against me and has registered it against my property. However, the bank subsequently sold on the debt to a vulture fund after having obtained and registered the judgement. Is the JM still valid now that they no longer own the debt? or can I apply to have it cancelled? I assume the accounts in question would now be recorded as settled albeit for a reduced amount?
Any advice much appreciated.
Any advice much appreciated.