Hi all,
Before June 1999 my family and 2 other shared undivided commonage land.
I rented my share of the commonage land in feb 1999 to someone who didn't actually graze or physically use it. They payed me and I still have the agreement. They withdrew their renting in late 1999.
But in June 1999 a sharing party (through a very dubious and inacurate affidavit) claimed the whole commonage through adverse possession.
Another party who also lost his share successfully challenged in court in 2001 and won. The judge said the adverse possession claim was totally without merit.
Would my renting it in 1999 stand to me now if I pursue our share in court?
If I now try to use the commonage will I be trespassing?
Before June 1999 my family and 2 other shared undivided commonage land.
I rented my share of the commonage land in feb 1999 to someone who didn't actually graze or physically use it. They payed me and I still have the agreement. They withdrew their renting in late 1999.
But in June 1999 a sharing party (through a very dubious and inacurate affidavit) claimed the whole commonage through adverse possession.
Another party who also lost his share successfully challenged in court in 2001 and won. The judge said the adverse possession claim was totally without merit.
Would my renting it in 1999 stand to me now if I pursue our share in court?
If I now try to use the commonage will I be trespassing?