Sheik Yerbouti
Registered User
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- 4
Hello all,
I'm in a strange but unfortunately all too familiar situation. I purchased 2 properties with a co-investor in the pre-crash period. We purchased these properties with 2 seperate mortgages from the same bank. Due to mental health issues, my other co-investor stopped collecting the rent and unbeknownst to me, both mortgages fell into arrears. I discovered this in February 2015 when I was informed by the bank that they had foreclosed on mortgage A and sold the property in a fire-sale, leaving EUR250,000 of a residual mortgage (now EUR330,000 including arrears). I managed to pay off the arrears on mortgage B and this mortgage has been serviced ever since I became aware of the arrears.
My question is this: Does the statute of limitations apply to mortgage A? I have not acknowledged this outstanding debt in writing and I have not received a court summons or judgement against me. Will the outstanding debt of mortgage A be statute-barred after February 2021 or by virtue of making monthly payments on mortgage B, does that constitute acknowledgement of the outsanding debt of mortgage A?
Any constructive advice is very welcome and appreciated. cheers, Sheik
I'm in a strange but unfortunately all too familiar situation. I purchased 2 properties with a co-investor in the pre-crash period. We purchased these properties with 2 seperate mortgages from the same bank. Due to mental health issues, my other co-investor stopped collecting the rent and unbeknownst to me, both mortgages fell into arrears. I discovered this in February 2015 when I was informed by the bank that they had foreclosed on mortgage A and sold the property in a fire-sale, leaving EUR250,000 of a residual mortgage (now EUR330,000 including arrears). I managed to pay off the arrears on mortgage B and this mortgage has been serviced ever since I became aware of the arrears.
My question is this: Does the statute of limitations apply to mortgage A? I have not acknowledged this outstanding debt in writing and I have not received a court summons or judgement against me. Will the outstanding debt of mortgage A be statute-barred after February 2021 or by virtue of making monthly payments on mortgage B, does that constitute acknowledgement of the outsanding debt of mortgage A?
Any constructive advice is very welcome and appreciated. cheers, Sheik
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