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We're looking at outsourcing of some financial transactions, including accounts payable. One of the vendors that we quite like is insisting that in ALL cases, the invoice must exactly equal the purchase order amount. The quoted reason for this is 'controls', but no-one can explain it any further.
Any payables system that I've used before would check that the invoice did not EXCEED the PO amount, but it never had to be an exact match. This requirement would seem to rule out (for example), raising one PO and processing two invoices for two seperate shipments of goods against this PO. It would also rule out raising a blanket PO for the year for regular consumables, e.g. photocopier paper.
Could there be any good reason why the invoice must exactly equal (as opposed to 'must not exceed') the purchase order?
Any payables system that I've used before would check that the invoice did not EXCEED the PO amount, but it never had to be an exact match. This requirement would seem to rule out (for example), raising one PO and processing two invoices for two seperate shipments of goods against this PO. It would also rule out raising a blanket PO for the year for regular consumables, e.g. photocopier paper.
Could there be any good reason why the invoice must exactly equal (as opposed to 'must not exceed') the purchase order?