Is it still the case that shares inherited in a private company,
no matter how small the holding,
are valued for inheritance tax purposes, on the same basis as
a majority holding?
If so, how can this be justified.
It seems terribly unfair, particularly since the inheritor of a majority shareholding can usually claim large tax relief when they are (as is likely) employed by the company.
Because of this, small shareholders are forced to sell their inherited shares to pay the Revenue but the price they will get for a minority holding will be highly discounted by any purchaser.
Comments please.