I read recently about a revenue rule whereby pension at retirement must be less than 66% of final salary. I am thinking of AVCs and am concerned about this.
Does this apply to defined contribution schemes in the private sector?
- What happens if for some reason my salary is very low in my final year before retirement? will this have a huge affect on my pension?
Under Revenue rules the maximum benefits which may be provided on retirement out of a pension funds are:
Personal pension of 2/3rds Final Salary (subject to having completed at least 10 years service by retirement)
Spouses pension on your death in retirement (leaving a surviving spouse) of 100% of your pension.
Pension indexation up to CPI
In relation to the definition of Final Salary, this can be either of:
Final years salary
Average salary over last 3 years
Average salary over any 3 consecutive years in the last 10 years.
In reality it would be very difficult (particularly in a DC scheme) to end up with a fund which would provide a benefit package in excess of Revenue limits. Based on current annuity rates, it would cost circa 40 times the annuity. So a pension of €50,000 p.a. from age 60 (with the spouses and indexation) would require a fund of circa €2m.
Thanks for this. Does anyone have a link to where the final salary definition is officially stated?
Conan said:
In reality it would be very difficult (particularly in a DC scheme) to end up with a fund which would provide a benefit package in excess of Revenue limits
The Pensions Board figures allow for a spouses pension of 50% (whereas the Revenue limit is 100%) and post retirement indexation of 2% (whereas CPI is possible).
In reality I know of very few DC schemes where you have a total contribution of 23%. In your example, the Company are paying 5% and yes you could contribute up to a total of 20% (being over age 30), but I dont see that providing benefits in excess of Revenue limits.