Last edited: Jan 11, 2017 I have an unsecured debt with the back. (It was a write down from residual debt leftover after selling investment properties) But now I can't pay the write down either. And the bank ain't for budging. My understanding is they can no longer legally come after me after 6 years? Is this correct? If so, from when does the clock start? I sold the properties about 2 years ago. But agreed on the writedown amount a year ago - but reneged due to losing job. Does that mean in 5 years I'm in the clear assuming they don't try to make me bankrupt? Does th clock start 2 years ago or one year ago? Did I read someplace that the clock starts over to 6 years again if I in anyway make contact with the back or respond to any of the queries during the 6 year period? Or are there any other intricacies I should know about on this law? As it stands the bank have not lodged a judgement against me. Does the 6 year rule be one redundant if they do lodge a judgement against me? Or is it applicable regardless?