Form11 - Chargeable Assets Section

anotherdumbq

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Hi,

I need to submit a Form 11 (for 2022) as I receive RSUs from my company on a quarterly basis, and have done since 2021. These RSUs are granted with zero exercise price (rather than a discount) and each quarter they're automatically sold to cover and income taxes processed through payroll.

I also participate in ESPP where we get a 15% discount. I have paid the RTSO on this discount each time the shares were purchased.

In 2022, I did not dispose of any shares, either those received through RSU vest or ESPP scheme.

Do I need to include the value of the shares acquired in 2022 in the "chargeable Assets Acquired in 2022" section? I'm assuming I do, but I'm not sure how to value them as my company is a US company as is the broker and so the shares are purchased and held in USD until I sell and the withdraw the proceeds from the broker to my Irish bank account.

In order to calculate the value in EUR of shares acquired, should I take the fx rate as of the date of vest (or purchase in case of ESPP) and input the total in the form 11? Or do I just convert using today's rate?

If I was to dispose of these today. To calculate CGT, I would take
((Purchase Price $ - Sale Price $) x today's fx rate)
rather than
((Purchase Price $ x Purchase Date FX Rate) - (Sales Price $ x Sales Date FX Rate))

So that has me thinking, maybe I should just take the total shares acquired during 2022 (at their Price on date of acquisition) and convert at today's USD/EUR rate?

I have the rest of my form 11 completed, and I don't have a tax liability but as I'm already late by a number of weeks I really want to get the return submitted ASAP so any guidance on this would be much appreciated, thanks!
 
You would normally convert the share price in $ to the acquisition cost in euro using the exchange rate on the day of acquisition
 
Thanks jpd, I'll complete the section on form 11 on that basis.

A question then for 2024 - if I sell these next year. Should I calculate the Capital Gain/Loss by

Method A
(Purchase Price $ - Sale Price $) x FX rate on date of sale

or

Method B
(Purchase Price $ x Purchase Date FX Rate) - (Sales Price $ x Sales Date FX Rate)
 
Thanks jpd, seems quite obvious it would be Method B as I reread it, not sure how I assumed it would be method A. Good to write these things out and get a considered opinion. Thanks for the quick replies!
 
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