It's taken me a few days to post this as I'm trying to be calm and it's very difficult this week in particular.
Quite a while ago, on this thread, http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=165309 I asked if AIB are going to make staff redundant how were theygoing to fund the more than the statutory amount.
Now this week, we find out that the pension fund was in deficit, and money the tax payer put into the bank to capitalise it was used to fill that deficit.
How is that right, how can that be allowed to happen. How come the money given to the bank didn't have a condition that there should be no transfer to the pension fund or is there something I'm missing.
Quite a while ago, on this thread, http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=165309 I asked if AIB are going to make staff redundant how were theygoing to fund the more than the statutory amount.
Now this week, we find out that the pension fund was in deficit, and money the tax payer put into the bank to capitalise it was used to fill that deficit.
How is that right, how can that be allowed to happen. How come the money given to the bank didn't have a condition that there should be no transfer to the pension fund or is there something I'm missing.
Last edited: