A relative of my better half divorced a few years ago in the UK. She is very comfortable and purchased a new pad for approx 1m stg. However, her new partner, whilst also quite a well off chap is also divorced with a family to maintain. So I observe that he contributed 1% to her new home purchase and pays the utility bills, she pays for food and other expenses monthly (and they eat very well!). She has also ploughed a sizeable sum into the new property for some renovations and new (high end) furniture and soft furnishings etc, whilst he has not.
So what I wonder is, as he is in finance himself, what is the angle, if any to contributing 1% to her gaff and paying the utilities (which are easy to prove payment) I suppose by my tone you can guess that I am suspicious about their arrangements, as this gal is not the brightest when it comes to financial matters. Other members of the inlaws have starting mumbling amongst themselves also.
So what I wonder is, as he is in finance himself, what is the angle, if any to contributing 1% to her gaff and paying the utilities (which are easy to prove payment) I suppose by my tone you can guess that I am suspicious about their arrangements, as this gal is not the brightest when it comes to financial matters. Other members of the inlaws have starting mumbling amongst themselves also.